Arsenal and Chelsea are closely monitoring the situation of Milan playmaker Hakan Calhanoglu with an interest in making a move for him in the summer. Turkey international has been with the Serie A giants since 2017, having joined them from German club Bayer Leverkusen.
Despite having made a slow start to life in Italy, Calhanoglu has grown into one of the most important members of the Rossoneri. Indeed, Hakan, along with Franck Kessie, has been Milan’s best footballer over the past twelve months or so, helping the team turn their fortunes around and emerge as Serie A title contenders again under Pioli.
In the ongoing campaign, the 27-year-old playmaker has produced a return of 7 goals and 11 assists from 34 matches in all tournaments. However, the Turkish playmaker’s future at San Siro has been a hot topic of discussion for a while now as the attacker nears the expiry of his deal.
Indeed, Hakan’s deal with Milan runs out at the end of the ongoing campaign. And with deal talks stalling, he would be a free agent in the summer transfer window. This has alerted several teams around Europe, with Man United previously being linked with a move for Calhanoglu.
Now, it is Arsenal and Chelsea who have been credited with an interest in Hakan as we approach the business end of the campaign. Gunners could certainly be in need of a playmaker like Calhanoglu in the summer given their creative woes in the first half of the ongoing season.
Things have seemed to ease off a bit since Emile Smith Rowe’s introduction into the side, coupled with the arrival of Martin Odegaard from Real Madrid.